Occupational Therapy (OT) Board Certification in Pediatrics Practice Test

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• What is the role of the arytenoids in the larynx?
• What characterizes occupational therapy models like MOHO or PEOP?
• Which level of evidence is considered the strongest?
• Which type of activities are included in OTPF-Occupations?
• What is the main focus of Process Oriented Groups?
• Which muscular dystrophy type typically starts later and has a lesser severity compared to Duchenne?
• What is the primary characteristic of a 2nd degree burn?
• Which therapeutic approach incorporates cognitive strategies like goal-plan-do-check?
• Which of the following is NOT a focus of Cognitive Functional Intervention (Cogn-Fun)?
• Pivotal Response Training primarily targets which aspect of development?
• What is the classification for very low birth weight in preterm infants?
• Which of the following best describes the role of OT in the SCERTS model?
• Which type of feeding tube goes directly into the small intestine?
• Which model is commonly used in Functional Behavior Assessments?
• What is the primary goal of Pivotal Response Training (PRT)?
• Which phase of swallowing involves postural control, feeding schedule, and oral hygiene?
• What is a key feature of Amblyopia?
• What type of study design is characterized as non-randomized with two groups?
• What is one common issue associated with Muscular Dystrophy?
• What typically happens to the patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) shortly after birth?
• What characterizes Erb's Palsy?
• What is the primary difference between enteral and parenteral feeding?
• In autonomic dysreflexia, what is a common symptom related to blood pressure?
• Under IDEA, how often should re-evaluation occur for children receiving services?
• Which of the following is NOT typically a pediatric intervention for spinal cord injury?
• What is a common challenge faced by individuals with ataxic cerebral palsy?
• What do the EPDST services stand for in the context of Social Security Amendments?
• How many occupations does CO-OP typically choose to learn over its sessions?
• Which of the following is not considered a personal factor according to the OTPF?
• What is the primary goal of Relationship Development Intervention (RDI) for children with ASD?
• What is encompassed by a frame of reference in occupational therapy?
• Which is a recommended intervention for chronic pain?
• What is the significance of a feeding schedule in the pre-oral phase?
• What common symptom is associated with both Usher Syndrome and Retinitis Pigmentosa?
• What type of study design is considered Level 4 evidence?
• Which heart condition is characterized by more serious implications, VSD or ASD?
• What type of study design is included in Level 1 evidence?
• Which aspect primarily deteriorates in Rett Syndrome as the child develops?
• Which level of evidence study design is based on a single group with a non-randomized approach?
• What is a common complication following spinal cord injury on a systemic level?
• What birth weight category does an infant of 1200g fit into?
• What does the Cognitive Orientation to Daily Occupational Performance (CO-OP) aim to improve?
• What characterizes Grade D spinal cord injury?
• What is a key focus of the Early Start Denver Model (ESDM) in therapy?
• How many protocolled sessions does Cognitive Functional Intervention typically include?
• Which neurological condition results from asphyxia and is associated with intraventricular hemorrhage?
• Which condition may include vision loss, seizures, and a facial birthmark?
• What is a significant factor contributing to hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy in infants?
• Which cranial nerves are involved in the feeding process?
• What do Task Oriented Groups primarily focus on?
• In CP assessments, what does GMFCS stand for?
• Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Angelman Syndrome?
• Which condition occurs as a result of mechanical ventilation, leading to tiny air bubbles in the lung?
• Which statement correctly describes Cystic Fibrosis?
• Which of the following is a treatment phase in addressing CVI?
• What classification indicates complete loss of motor and sensory function in spinal cord injury?
• Which of the following is true regarding a 504 Plan?
• The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) primarily aims to protect individuals in which areas?
• Which therapy approach is used for children at risk for cerebral palsy that focuses on coaching parents?
• De Morsier's Syndrome is primarily characterized by what ocular condition?
• Which evidence level includes case reports and narrative literature reviews?
• What does the Toronto Test Score (TTS) primarily assess?
• Which type of visual impairment results from damage to the structures of the eye or optic chiasm?
• Which of the following describes dysesthesia?
• Which intervention type focuses on promoting academic success through education and support?
• What are common physical challenges faced by children with spastic CP?
• Where does food move after the pharyngeal phase in the swallowing process?
• What syndrome features both partial or total hearing loss along with gradual vision loss?
• Which approach emphasizes cognitive strategies within therapeutic sessions for children with various developmental conditions?
• What do environmental factors in the OTPF include?
• Which SCI grade indicates incomplete motor function but sensory is functional below the lesion?
• For a deep second-degree burn, what additional treatment may be required beyond basic care?
• What is a common symptom of gastroesophageal reflux in children?
• IDEA Part C services are provided to which group of children?
• Which model emphasizes the interaction between a person, environment, and occupation?
• What assessment can be used to detect changes in ambulation in children with muscular dystrophy?
• What aspect does the AOTA Standards of Practice NOT include?
• The Tech Act supports programs to provide what type of resources to individuals?
• What are the three stages of the OTPF-Process?
• What is the impact of neurologic impairments on conditions such as Esophageal Atresia?
• What is a primary characteristic of an atrial septal defect (ASD)?
• Amplified Musculoskeletal Pain Syndrome (AMPS) is characterized by what type of pain?
• Retinopathy of prematurity can lead to which serious condition in infants?
• Which of the following is a common symptom of Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?
• Which phase of swallowing does the hypopharynx relate to?
• According to the AOTA Standards of Continuing Competence, which is NOT a required element?
• In the heart's blood flow, where does blood go after passing through the right atrium?
• What is the primary purpose of a pH probe in diagnosing gastroesophageal reflux (GERD)?
• Which AOTA Standard of Conduct emphasizes the importance of maintaining professional integrity?
• Which condition is associated with the loss of vision in one eye?
• Sandifer Syndrome is associated with which of the following?
• What is the purpose of an Upper GI study?
• Which cranial nerve is not involved in the feeding process?
• What does SCERTS stand for in the context of occupational therapy?
• According to OTPF, what are routines defined as?
• In the CVI range, what visual response would be classified as 1-2?
• What is a primary focus of the Every Student Succeeds Act (ESSA)?
• What role does chin tuck play in the pharyngeal phase of swallowing?
• Which condition is characterized by a mutation in the dystrophin gene?
• What legislation created the Medicaid program?
• What term describes pain that occurs in response to stimuli that usually do not cause pain?
• Which assessment tool is NOT typically used for evaluating cerebral palsy?
• Which concept is central to the Canadian Model of Occupational Performance?
• Under IDEA Part B, what is one requirement for states?
• In the context of pain types, what does 'visceral' pain refer to?
• During the oral phase, what skills are involved in feeding?
• When is the risk highest for intraventricular hemorrhage in premature infants?
• What condition is defined by a visual acuity worse than 20/200 with correction?
• Which type of cerebral palsy is characterized by increased muscle tone?
• Sturge-Weber Syndrome is associated with which of the following?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of tube feed mentioned?
• What type of intervention includes the use of orthotics and mobility aids according to OTPF?
• Which of the following is an example of a frame of reference used in occupational therapy?
• What does FAPE stand for in the context of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA)?
• What is the main issue in Leber's Congenital Amaurosis?
• According to the Kiresuk-Sherman formula for GAS goal scoring, what does -1 represent?
• Which of the following is a common outcome of prolonged ventilation in preterm infants?
• What is the objective of Phase 1 in CVI treatment?
• Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is primarily caused by what factor?
• What is the main purpose of IDEA Part C?
• Retinitis Pigmentosa is primarily characterized by?
• What is an important aspect to consider regarding swallowing interventions for children?
• What is a consequence of bronchopulmonary dysplasia on feeding?
• Which symptom is NOT typically associated with chronic pain?
• Which intervention is focused on increasing imitation and interaction in children with ASD?
• What is a key focus in Occupational Adaptation?
• In the context of Occupational Therapy, "performance capacity" refers to what?
• Which type of injury is Klumpke's Palsy associated with?
• Which principle in AOTA's Code of Ethics emphasizes the accuracy of information provided to clients?
• Which condition requires surgical intervention when the degree exceeds 45 degrees?
• Which of the following may support feeding for children with cerebral palsy?
• What is the main purpose of Phase 2 in CVI treatment?
• What principle in the AOTA Code of Ethics focuses on respecting clients' rights to make their own decisions?
• Which of the following best describes the purpose of evaluation in IDEA Part C?
• Which of the following is an intervention for congenital heart defects?
• During what age does Rett Syndrome typically begin to show regression in development?
• What structure does the epiglottis protect during swallowing?
• Which approach to interventions decreases disability risk according to OTPF?
• What visual field deficit occurs on one side of the field?
• Which of the following is NOT considered one of the AOTA Core Values?
• Which component is essential in the Ecology of Human Performance model?
• The International Classification of Functioning, Disability, and Health (ICF) framework includes which of the following categories?
• What condition is characterized by all forms of visual processing disorders?
• What is coarctation of the aorta primarily characterized by?
• What is the role of the larynx during swallowing?
• What potential issue does a Modified Barium Swallow Study help identify?
• What is the difference between penetration and aspiration in the context of swallowing?
• Which is NOT a characteristic of CVI?
• What does the term "modification" refer to in the OTPF approaches to intervention?
• What is the primary purpose of a Functional Behavior Assessment (FBA) in schools?
• What is the primary risk associated with periventricular leukomalacia?
• What role can occupational therapists play in IDEA Part C programs?
• Which approach incorporates visual supports to enhance motor skills and cognition?
• Which visual behaviors are commonly observed in children with CVI?
• What genetic disorder is categorized by motor ataxia and epilepsy?
• Which method is most commonly used to evaluate burn surface area in children?
• In which phase of swallowing does the swallow reflex and peristaltic action occur?
• The Model of Human Occupation includes which of the following constructs?
• What does the term "volition" refer to in the Model of Human Occupation?
• Which structures are included in the oral cavity?
• Which statement best describes Cerebral Visual Impairment (CVI)?
• Which model stresses the importance of adaptation in participation and mastery?
• What condition is characterized by a lack of surfactant production in the lungs until after 35 weeks of gestational age?
• Which of the following describes an avulsion injury?
• In occupational therapy, what purpose does a model serve?
• Which of the following is part of the OTPF-Domain?
• What is included in a transition plan when moving from IDEA Part C to Part B?
• Which type of muscular dystrophy primarily affects the face first?
• In managing autonomic dysreflexia, what is an immediate action to take?
• Which of the following best defines motor skills according to OTPF?
• Which spinal nerves are primarily involved in an upper brachial plexus injury?
• In the Canadian Model of Occupational Performance and Engagement, what does a limitation in the person affect?
• What defines the esophageal phase of swallowing?
• What type of visual impairment is characterized by a deficit in night vision?
• What might be a consequence of dyskinesia or dystonia in individuals with CP related to toileting?
• Which developmental issue is associated with intraventricular hemorrhage?
• During which phase of eating are structural abnormalities most effectively assessed?
• What condition is determined by bending at the waist with palms together during a physical examination?
• What is the nature of the abdominal condition known as omphalocele?
• What does a Modified Barium Swallow Study (MBSS) primarily assess?
• What is one of the components of performance patterns in the OTPF?
• Which client factor is focused on mental abilities as defined by the OTPF?
• How does the Family Education Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) relate to OT records?
• Which assessment looks at categories and grades in children older than 2 years?
• In the Person-Environment-Occupation Performance model, what is emphasized for success?
• What is a common characteristic of the 'dyskinesis' type of cerebral palsy?
• In the context of AOTA Standards of Conduct, what does ‘Therapeutic Relationships’ emphasis?
• What defines a theory in the context of occupational therapy?
• Microphthalmia refers to what condition?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of pain mentioned?
• In OTPF, which of the following approaches is focused on creating a new skill?
• What is the significance of scoring below 325m on the 6-minute walk test?
• What principle focuses on avoiding harm to clients according to the AOTA Code of Ethics?
• Which of the following is a function addressed under body functions in OTPF?
• What does the term dysphagia refer to?
• What visual acuity defines low vision?
• What does a score of 0 indicate in the GAS goal scoring system developed by Steenbeck and colleagues?
• Which autoimmune disorder is associated with adrenal gland dysfunction?
• Which of the following is least likely to result in a visual field deficit?
• What genetic anomaly is present in Down Syndrome?
• What is indicated by a CVI Range score of 9-10?
• Which act requires that federally funded programs be accessible to all individuals?
• Which of the following is a focus area under AOTA Professional Competence?
• What is one of the goals of the Occupational Performance Experience Analysis (OPEA)?
• Which evaluation tool is used to assess active movement against gravity?
• What aspect is often limited in an Upper GI study?